If this is a 2A infringment, please tell me your thoughts on how it came to pass, the logic of why it is in there, and supporting logic to take it out. Also one less general question. Why has no one apealed to the SC? "A well regulated militia, being the best security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed" § 921. Definitions TITLE 18 > PART I > CHAPTER 44 > § 921 (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), it shall be unlawful for any person to transfer or possess a machinegun. (2) This subsection does not apply with respect to (A) a transfer to or by, or possession by or under the authority of, the United States or any department or agency thereof or a State, or a department, agency, or political subdivision thereof; or (B) any lawful transfer or lawful possession of a machinegun that was lawfully possessed before the date this subsection takes effect. First I would like to give credit for this to Rep Rangel, who stayed up one night in 86 to take a vote of nay's, distort them to yeas and gable the bill passed.