Originally Posted by eccho
My understanding, is that the "private sale loophole" that's such a menace to our society only applies to those of us who are not "in the business" of selling firearms. So wouldn't this guy already be breaking the law?
I believe that's the actual terminology they use, and it is vague, but I always thought this kind of thing was over that line.
Wouldn't the IRS alone have a thing or two to say about it?
I don't know. All I do know is that he's obviously lying on the 4473s when he states he's buying the firearm for himself. He was banned from all the local gun trading groups shortly after making those statements.