Originally Posted by FCoulter
Before I go any further, may I ask you one thing? Are you saying Paul didn't continue to keep Gods Feasts after Christ died?
I'll wait on you to answer before I continue.
I believe he had Timothy circumcised, and moved to dedicate him in the Temple. (This maneuver earned him a visit with Ceasar.) I'm not aware of any feast he kept beyond that, but if he did, it was because he was moving between Jewish and Gentile worlds, being "all things to all men, that [he] might save some." How could he write Galatians with such force, repudiating the ceremonial law (though not the moral law) as of any worth in the transaction of salvation?
I'm open to this Theologicasl debate, but I chimed in here at all because the tone was off the charts. I won't accuse you of anything, so maybe we can be civil to each other.